[ Home | Search | Next | Previous | Up ]
![]()
From: jean
Date: 12/19/00
Time: 7:58:31 PM
I think it is probably a misuse of a law. I think the law of being able to sue in civil court after some one is found not guilty in criminal court was for cases such as: A man is wrestling with another and one falls out the window and is killed. At the trial, he is found not guilty as it is found to have been an accident. Then the widow can sue as he did cause the death, but is not guilty of murder or even manslaughter. Or any similar situation. In this case it is a wrong ful use of this law, as a man who is declared not guilty is then declared causing the murder. I think the loop hole is that he was not declared innocent, but only not guilty. I think this had never or rarely been done till the OJ case and now everyone is doing it. Correct me if I am wrong.
![]()